14th Amendment language emphasizes ‘United States’ is separate from the 50 american states

A part of the 14th Amendment, which I just noticed, clearly points out that United States does not mean the 50 American states.

It says, “Neither the United States nor any state…“.

If United States meant the 50 states, they wouldn’t need to add ‘nor any state’. But as everyone knew at that time, United States means the territories and the federal government, but not the American states.

Here’s the full text of section four of the 14th Amendment:

Section 4.
The validity of the public debt of the United States, authorized by law, including debts incurred for payment of pensions and bounties for services in suppressing insurrection or rebellion, shall not be questioned. But neither the United States nor any state shall assume or pay any debt or obligation incurred in aid of insurrection or rebellion against the United States, or any claim for the loss or emancipation of any slave; but all such debts, obligations and claims shall be held illegal and void.

Full text here.

Here’s a diagram to show how United States is different from the 50 American States.

impossible to explain. See the text on the page.

 

 

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One comment on “14th Amendment language emphasizes ‘United States’ is separate from the 50 american states

  1. After reading this post, which I totally agree and engage with since the fraudulent, unlawful conversion into corporate fictions by “governments” , we the living have been victim of, is being disclosed now throughout our western world, it would be logical to suppose that one – after being naturalized a “citizen” (a slave rather) of US, UK, Canada, Australia, etc deeply believing one was really adopting such nationalities, that one has never acquired anything after all, but only a corporate fictional diminished status before these so called States and before everyone else. How can one obtain remedy and alleviate such harm since one’s intend was never to become a legal all caps agent of the corrupt mafia state? Who is entitled then to provide remedy?
    Is one entitled to proclaim one self a national of any of those territories one has settled in for years? Before whom does one proclaim one self a national? What is the scope of such proclamation? And if such proclamation is not rebutted by anyone or any institution, for everyone is entitled to a nationality (human right), how can one have such fact reflected on documents of identification such passports etc, knowing these identification documents are issued by a corporate state that has subverted the mission of governments as our own creations?
    In other words: If I have naturalized Canadian, for instance, and it turns out after reading this post that I have only acquired a corporate “citizen-ship” , am I really a Canadian? Can I proclaim myself a Canadian? What are the real requirements so that one can say and or entitle one self of any nationality? Who or what is the authority before whom one can obtain such recognition of proclamation?
    Any advice would be greatly appreciated.
    Isaac

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